Many people think that the war in Afghanistan began as a ‘revenge by the USA for the 9/11 attacks’ (of 2001). He also writes that ‘our participation in the US wars of aggression… make us a target’. But the 9/11 attack evidently occurred before the war in Afghanistan , as many say. Thus, how could that attack be a response to a war that had not yet begun? Of course people will will now say that other wars, etc. were to blame for 9/11. Is this another rationalisation for terrorism?
So just as it was the case that the US invaded Afghanistan in response to 9/11, so it can also be argued that Israel occupied the West Bank and Gaza in response to Hamas and Fatah terrorism. The ‘Occupation’ did not cause the terrorism.
In any case, at first Osama bin Laden was mainly motivated by the ‘outrageous’ presence of US personnel in Saudi Arabia, not by Afghanistan, Iraq or Palestine. Take another example. Three pre-Afghanistan and pre-Iraq bombings were carried out by Muslim group in 1977 in Washington . These bombings were a response to the showing of a (sacrilegious) film about the prophet Mohammed. And Islamist bombs have been going off since the 1920s (e.g., in Palestine and Egypt ).
Islamist bombings will still occur even if we pull out of Afghanistan . And even if Israel pulls out of the West Bank and Gaza . The Islamists and terrorists know this (read their stuff). However, it seems that many British people don’t.